UGC NET Solved Papers Commerce June' 2012
[Paper II Commerce 08 NTA NET Exam 2025]
UGC NET PAPER III COMMERCE SOLVED PAPERS
Note: This paper contains fifty (75) objective-type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
1. If Opening Stock is 10,000, Net Purchases 70,000, Wages 2,500, Carriage inward 500 and Closing Stock 15,000, what is the Manufacturing Cost?
(A) ` 65,000.
(B) ` 83,000.
(C) ` 68,000.
(D) ` 73,000.
Ans: (C) ` 68,000.
2. What does a high payout ratio indicate?
(A) A High Earning Per Share (EPS).
(B) The management is not ploughing back enough profit.
(C) The management is ploughing back profit.
(D) The company is earning high profit.
Ans: (B) The management is not ploughing back enough profit.
3. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Capital expenditure does not affect the profitability of a concern but revenue expenditure does.
(B) Capital expenditure affects the profitability of a concern directly but revenue expenditure does not.
(C) Capital expenditure affects the profitability of a concern indirectly but revenue expenditure affects directly.
(D) Both capital expenditure and revenue expenditure affect the profitability of a concern directly.
Ans: (C) Capital expenditure affects the profitability of a concern indirectly but revenue expenditure affects directly.
4. Identify the true statement of the following:
(i) Balance Sheet is always prepared from the point of view of the business but not from that of the owners.
(ii) The financial relationship of the business to its owners is shown in the Balance Sheet.
(iii) Balance Sheet is always related to a period of time.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii).
(B) (ii) and (iii).
(C) (i) and (iii).
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii).
Ans: (A) (i) and (ii).
5. X and Y are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratios of 2 : 1. Z is admitted with a 1/3 profit sharing. What will be the new profit sharing ratio of X, Y and Z?
(A) 3 : 3 : 3.
(B) 4 : 3 : 2.
(C) 4 : 2 : 3.
(D) 2 : 3 : 4.
Ans: (C) 4 : 2 : 3.
6. Which one of the following will not affect the working capital?
(A) Realisation of cash from debtors.
(B) Sale of plant and machinery in cash.
(C) Issue of equity shares.
(D) Redemption of debentures.
Ans: (A) Realisation of cash from debtors.
7. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): When a company earns profit prior to its incorporation, it is called capital profit.
Reason (R): Capital profit cannot be used for distribution as dividend to the shareholders.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
8. Reconstruction of a company takes place when
(i) the company is under capitalised.
(ii) company has incurred heavy losses which must be written off.
(iii) the company is over capitalised Which one of the following is correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) only.
(B) (i) and (iii) only.
(C) (ii) and (iii) only.
(D) All the above.
Ans: (C) (ii) and (iii) only.
9. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
(a) Leverage Ratio. (b) Liquidity Ratio. (c) Turnover Ratio. (d) Profitability Ratio. |
(i) Short-term solvency. (ii) Earning capacity. (iii) Relationship between debt and equity. (iv) Efficiency of Asset Management. |
Codes:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).
(B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv).
(C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii).
Ans: (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii).
10. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Sinking fund is a charge against Profit and Loss Account.
Reason (R): Sinking fund is created for repayment of a long term liability.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
11. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
(a) Goodwill of a company. (b) Overdraft. (c) Preliminary Expenses. (d) Premium on Issue of Shares. |
(i) Current liability. (ii) Fixed Assets. (iii) Reserves and Surplus. (iv) Fictitious Assets. |
Codes:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).
(C) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).
(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).
Ans: (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii).
12. In India, which of the following is prepared on the guidelines of AS-3 (Accounting Standard – 3)?
(A) Balance Sheet of a Company.
(B) Funds Flow Statement.
(C) Cash Flow Statement.
(D) Consolidated Financial Statement.
Ans: (C) Cash Flow Statement.
13. What is the correct sequence of the following actions required for the preparation of financial accounts?
(i) Trading accounts.
(ii) Making adjusting entries.
(iii) Balance Sheet.
(iv) Profit and Loss Account.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii).
(B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i).
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii).
(D) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i).
Ans: (C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii).
14. The main effect of inflation on the financial statement is
(A) Profits are understated.
(B) Overstatement of Assets.
(C) Adequacy of funds for replacement of assets.
(D) Erosion of capital.
Ans: (D) Erosion of capital.
15. Present value of future earnings is a model of Human Resources Accounting suggested by
(A) Brauch Lev & ABA Schwartz.
(B) Jaggi & Lau.
(C) S.K. Chakraborty.
(D) Eric Flamhaltz.
Ans: (A) Brauch Lev & ABA Schwartz.
16. Which element of the promotion mix do wholesalers generally apply to obtain their promotional objective?
(A) Advertising.
(B) Personal Selling.
(C) Trade Promotion.
(D) Direct Marketing.
Ans: (C) Trade Promotion.
17. Who has given ‘fourteen Principles of Management’?
(A) Barnard.
(B) Henry Fayol.
(C) F.W. Taylor.
(D) Flemming.
Ans: (B) Henry Fayol.
18. What is M.B.O?
(A) Management by Objective.
(B) Multiple Business Organisation.
(C) Management by Organisation.
(D) Multiplicity of Business Operations.
Ans: (A) Management by Objective.
19. Match items in List – II with items in List – I:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
I. Mega Marketing. II. Penetration Price. III. Promotion Mix. IV. Customer Satisfaction. |
1. Advertising. 2. Kotler. 3. Low price. 4. Post Purchase Behaviour. |
Codes:
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV.
(B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV.
(C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I.
(D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II.
Ans: (B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV.
20. Statement (A): Sales promotion has a strong impact on consumer behaviour in rural India.
Reason (R): Rural people in India give utmost significance to sales promotion schemes.
Codes:
(A) Statement (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
(C) Both Statement (A) and Reason (R) are correct.
(D) Both Statement (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect.
Ans: (A) Statement (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect.
21. Market sub-divided on the basis of behavioural characteristics is called
(A) Segmentation.
(B) Aggregation.
(C) Precision.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (A) Segmentation.
22. What is mass marketing?
(A) Offering the same products and marketing mix to all consumers.
(B) Offering variety of products to the entire market.
(C) Offering differentiated products to all customers.
(D) Following concentrated marketing strategy.
Ans: (A) Offering the same products and marketing mix to all consumers.
23. Which concept of marketing is based on the assumption that superior products sell themselves?
(A) Production.
(B) Marketing.
(C) Societal.
(D) Product.
Ans: (D) Product.
24. In broader sense, marketing communication includes
(A) Product.
(B) Price.
(C) Place.
(D) All.
Ans: (D) All.
25. Physical distribution provides
(A) Place utility.
(B) Time utility.
(C) Place and Time utility.
(D) Form utility.
Ans: (C) Place and Time utility.
26. What is relevant to place variable of marketing mix?
(A) Branding.
(B) Price penetration.
(C) Sales personnel motivation.
(D) None.
Ans: (C) Sales personnel motivation.
27. Find incorrect statement:
(A) Marketers arouse emotional motives.
(B) Marketers satisfy rational motives.
(C) Marketers formulate different sales promotions for different motives.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (D) None of the above.
28. Non-store marketing includes
(A) Home selling.
(B) V.P.P.
(C) Vending Machines.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: (D) All of the above.
29. What is customer delight?
(A) Performance equal to expectation.
(B) Performance less than expectation.
(C) Performance more than expectation.
(D) Expectation more than performance.
Ans: (A) Performance equal to expectation.
30. Which terms are often used interchangeably in marketing literature?
(A) Concept, method, philosophy.
(B) Concept, approach, technique.
(C) Orientation, concept, philosophy.
(D) Philosophy, system, concept.
Ans: (C) Orientation, concept, philosophy.
31. Which one of the following is not the operative function of HRM?
(A) Development.
(B) Controlling.
(C) Compensation.
(D) Integration.
Ans: (B) Controlling.
32. Which one of the following is not in sequence of personnel training procedure?
1. Instructor Preparation.
2. Present the task.
3. Try out performance.
4. Training preparation.
5. Follow up.
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5.
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5.
(D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4.
Ans: (C) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5.
33. Under which method of performance appraisal one person is compared with all others for the purpose of placing them in a simple order of work?
(A) Grading.
(B) Person to Person comparison.
(C) Ranking.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (C) Ranking.
34. Which one of the following is not the fundamental procedure that should be considered for the collective bargaining?
(A) Pre-negotiation phase.
(B) Selection of Negotiators.
(C) Tactic and Strategy of Bargaining.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (D) None of the above.
35. Assertion (A): Inevitably the firm must go to the external sources for lower entry jobs.
Reason (R): For positions where required qualification/ experience are not met.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Ans: (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
36. Match the following items of List – I and List – II:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
1. Asbestos. 2. Benzene. 3. Ethylene Disbromide. 4. Kerosene. |
I. Lung Cancer. II. Cancer. III. Leukemia. IV. Acute Nervous System Depression. |
Codes:
(A) I-4, II-2, III-3, IV-1.
(B) I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1.
(C) I-1, II-3, III-2, IV-4.
(D) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1.
Ans: (C) I-1, II-3, III-2, IV-4.
37. Assertion (A): Business Economics is tool centric facilitating decision making in business.
Reason (R): It provides an analytical understanding of economic activities.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
38. Demand has the following elements:
(A) Quantity.
(B) Price.
(C) Time.
(D) All the above.
Ans: (D) All the above.
39. A perfectly competitive firm attains equilibrium when
(A) AC = AR.
(B) MR = MC.
(C) MC = AC.
(D) TC = TR.
Ans: (B) MR = MC.
40. The purpose of job evaluation is
(A) Fixation of Responsibility.
(B) Promotion.
(C) Wage Determination.
(D) Transfer to a better job.
Ans: (C) Wage Determination.
41. For testing of hypothesis H0:M1=M2 and H1:M1<M2, the critical value of Z at 5% level of significance when size of sample is more than 30 is
(A) 1.96.
(B) 2.32.
(C) 1.645.
(D) 2.5758.
Ans: (C) 1.645.
42. Which of the following is the nonrandom method of selecting samples from a population?
(A) Stratified Sampling.
(B) Quota Sampling.
(C) Systematic Sampling.
(D) Cluster Sampling.
Ans: (B) Quota Sampling.
43. If the two regression coefficients are 0.8 and 0.2, then the value of coefficient of correlation is
(A) + 0.16.
(B) – 0.40.
(C) – 0.16.
(D) + 0.40.
Ans: (D) + 0.40.
44. Which one of the following is a relative measure of dispersion?
(A) Standard deviation.
(B) Variance.
(C) Coefficient of variation.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (C) Coefficient of variation.
45. Assertion (A): Internal factors of business environment are controllable factors.
Reason (R): The company can alter or modify such factors to suit the environment.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect.
Ans: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
46. The concept of ‘Rolling Plan’ in India was introduced by the
(A) BJP Government.
(B) Janta Government.
(C) Congress Government.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: (B) Janta Government.
47. Which one of the following is an obstacle to globalisation?
(A) Wide base.
(B) Niche markets.
(C) Obsolescence.
(D) Competition.
Ans: (C) Obsolescence.
48. ‘VSAT’ technology is first followed for on-line trading by
(A) BSE.
(B) OTCEI.
(C) NSE.
(D) ISE.
Ans: (C) NSE.
49. Match the following:
|
List – I Years |
List – II Act |
|
(a) 1956. (b) 1986. (c) 1992. (d) 2002. |
(i) Consumer Protection Act. (ii) Indian Companies Act. (iii) Securities and Exchange Board of India. (iv) Securitisation Act. |
Codes:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv).
(D) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii).
Ans: (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).
50. The flagship project of Government of India launched for generating guaranteed employment in rural areas is known as
(A) PMRY.
(B) MNREGA.
(C) JRY.
(D) NREP.
Ans: (B) MNREGA.
51. The conflicts in project ranking in capital budgeting as per NPV and IRR may arise because of
(A) Size disparity.
(B) Time disparity.
(C) Life disparity.
(D) All the above.
Ans: (D) All the above.
52. The degree of financial leverage reflects the responsiveness of
(A) Operating income to changes in total revenue.
(B) EPS to changes in EBIT.
(C) EPS to changes in total revenue.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (B) EPS to changes in EBIT.
53. The overall capitalisation rate and the cost of debt remain constant for all degrees of financial leverage is advocated by
(A) Traditional Approach.
(B) Net Income Approach.
(C) Net Operating Income Approach.
(D) M-M-Approach.
Ans: (C) Net Operating Income Approach.
54. Which of the following is not included in the assumptions on which Myron Gordon proposed a model on stock valuation?
(A) Retained earnings, the only source of financing.
(B) Finite life of the firm.
(C) Taxes do not exist.
(D) Constant rate of return on firm’s investment.
Ans: (B) Finite life of the firm.
55. Match the following:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
(i) Factoring services. (ii) Economic Order Quantity. (iii) Commercial paper. |
(a) Cash Management. (b) Receivable Management. (c) Inventory Management. (d) Working Capital Financing. |
Codes:
(A) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b).
(B) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a).
(C) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d).
(D) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c).
Ans: (C) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d).
56. Assertion (A): International business focuses on global resources, opportunities to buy/sell worldwide.
Reason (R): The efforts of IMF, World Bank and WTO to liberalise their economies led to globalisation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
57. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
(i) Wider Market. (ii) Turn key Projects. (iii) Expanding the production capacities. (iv) Geocentric approach. |
1. Modes of Entry. 2. Goal of International Business. 3. Advantages of International Business. 4. Stage of Globalisation. |
Codes:
(A) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-1.
(B) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-4.
(C) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4.
(D) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-1.
Ans: (B) (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-4.
58. BRICS includes
(A) Bhutan, Romania, Indonesia, Chile and South Korea.
(B) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, Chile and Sudan.
(C) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
(D) Britain, Russia, India, Czechoslovakia, Sri Lanka.
Ans: (C) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
59. Out of the following, one is not related with WTO:
(A) TRIPS.
(B) Ministerial Conference.
(C) TRIMS.
(D) TRAI.
Ans: (D) TRAI.
60. Balance of Payment includes components
(A) Current Account, Capital Account, Unilateral Payments Accounts, Official Settlement Account.
(B) Revenue Account, P & L Account, Capital Account, Official Account.
(C) Trade Account, Activity Account, Revenue Account, Currency Account.
(D) Forex Account, Trade Account, Funds Account.
Ans: (A) Current Account, Capital Account, Unilateral Payments Accounts, Official Settlement Account.
61. Assertion (A): International Monetary Fund was set up in 1944.
Reason (R): To promote international monetary cooperation through a permanent institution which provides machinery for consultation and collaboration on international monetary problems.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
62. The commercial banks do not perform one function out of the following:
(A) Mobilisation of savings.
(B) Giving Loans and Advances.
(C) Issuing Currency Notes.
(D) Financing Priority Sectors.
Ans: (C) Issuing Currency Notes.
63. There are two lists of items, match the items of List – I with items of List – II:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
I. Reserve Bank of India. II. EXIM Bank. III. SIDBI. IV. Capital Adequacy. |
1. NPA. 2. Facilitating Small Scale Industries. 3. Credit Control. 4. Export/Import Financing. |
Codes:
(A) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4.
(B) I-4, II-3, III-2, IV-1.
(C) I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1.
(D) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1.
Ans: (D) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1.
64. One of the items is not related with e-banking:
(A) Demand Draft.
(B) SPNS.
(C) ECS.
(D) ATM.
Ans: (A) Demand Draft.
65. Assertion (A): The Treasury Manager uses the derivatives in the Bond market as well as in Forex market.
Reason (R): It helps risk coverage.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
66. Factoring and forfeiting have not taken off in the Indian economy due to lack of expertise and experience. One is not included in the factoring services rendered.
(A) Purchase of book debts and receivables.
(B) Prepayment of debts partially or fully.
(C) Giving advice.
(D) Covering the credit risk of the suppliers.
Ans: (C) Giving advice.
67. Which one is not the form of FDI?
(A) Purchase of existing assets in foreign currency.
(B) New Investment in property, plant, equipment.
(C) Making investment in the mutual funds.
(D) Transfer of many types of assets.
Ans: (C) Making investment in the mutual funds.
68. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
1. Measures towards globalization. 2. Off-shoring. 3. FERA. 4. Mr. Aruthur Dunkel. |
I. Globalisation. II. FEMA. III. Liberalise the inflow of FDI. IV. Uruguay Round. |
Codes:
(A) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV.
(B) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV.
(C) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III.
(D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III.
Ans: (A) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV.
69. Which one of the following is not the advantage of MNCs to the host country?
(A) Increase in social activity.
(B) Increase in economic activity.
(C) Utilisation of natural resources.
(D) R & D efforts enhanced.
Ans: (A) Increase in social activity.
70. India suffered from deficit balance both in trade balance and net invisibles, hence, took up a number of steps to manage this problem. Which one is not appropriate for this?
(A) Export control.
(B) Current Account Convertibility.
(C) Liberalised Export Policy.
(D) Unified Exchange Rate.
Ans: (A) Export control.
71. Mr. James, a citizen of U.S., arrived in India for the first time on 1st July, 2010 and left for Nepal on 15th December 2010. He arrived to India again on 1st January 2011 and stayed till the end of the financial year 2010-11. His residential status for the assessment year 2011-12 is
(A) Resident (ordinarily resident).
(B) Not ordinarily resident.
(C) Non-resident.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (B) Not ordinarily resident.
72. The value of free accommodation in Delhi provided by employer in the private sector is
(A) 10% of salary.
(B) 15% of salary.
(C) 20% of salary.
(D) 25% of salary.
Ans: (B) 15% of salary.
73. Which of the following is not a capital asset under capital gains head of income?
(A) Stock in trade.
(B) Goodwill of business.
(C) Agricultural Land in Delhi.
(D) Jewellery.
Ans: (A) Stock in trade.
74. Match the items of List – I with List – II:
|
List – I |
List – II |
|
I. Tax Planning. II. Tax Avoidance. III. Tax Evasion. IV. Tax Administration. |
1. Making suitable arrangement of TDS. 2. Understatement of Income. 3. Availing deduction under Section 10A of IT Act. 4. Misinterpreting the provisions of the IT Act. |
Codes:
(A) I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3.
(B) I-1, II-4, III-3, IV-2.
(C) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1.
(D) I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2.
Ans: (C) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1.
75. Under the Income Tax Act, 1961 unabsorbed depreciation can be carried forward for set-off purpose:
(A) For 4 years.
(B) For 5 years.
(C) For 8 years.
(D) For unspecified period.
Ans: (D) For unspecified period.